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My friend got married 27 years back, and in 2008, she and her husband purchased a bungalow. While her husband is the primary owner, she is listed as a co-owner. They obtained a home loan from a bank to finance the purchase. For the past six years, they have not been living together, and her husband has had no contact with her for the past two years. Furthermore, he has not made any home loan EMI payments for the past four years. The bank has now issued a notice indicating that legal action will be taken. To avoid losing the property, my friend, as a co-owner, would like to explore the possibility of selling the bungalow after clearing the outstanding home loan, even in the absence of her husband's involvement.